"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth." 1 Timothy 2.4.
To qualify what the little word "all" means in this universal sounding verse should not be too difficult. Clearly the apostle cannot be meaning that every man will be saved, for any with a little knowledge of Scripture would know that cannot possibly be true. If it were true, every man from that point on would "be saved", for God is all powerful, and "Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven." Matthew 6.10. Have all men without exception been saved since those inspired words were uttered? Has everyone repented and believed on the precious blood of Jesus? Well, even an Arminian would know that not to be the case! Is not unbelief and wickedness ever increasing the world over? Has our own once well favoured land become more Christian or less, in recent years? Such a notion that the "all" in the verse under consideration means every man, would render God not to be omnipotent, which would be contrary to the plain teaching of Scripture, for His will be done! The Saviour taught extensively about "everlasting punishment" in the Gospels, He even questioned if He would "find faith on the earth" when He returns! Luke 18.8. He said "Narrow, is the way which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it." Matthew 7.14.
So what does the "all" mean? It obviously means (read the context) that all men from Gentile nations from the four corners of the earth will be among the elect, along with the Jews. For Paul said "supplications, prayers, intercessions...be made for all men; for kings, and for all that are in authority..." He is asking believers, in the first place, to pray for those who rule so "that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty." (in other words, so they will leave us alone!). But, what do we see going on today? Christians are being increasingly marginalised, and so we will be until the Antichrist himself arrives.
The Bible is a Judeo Christian book, the "all men" must therefore mean all God's elect from the Jews and the Gentiles. All men will be saved, that is many from all the nations on God's earth, obviously not every man. Some of the 'easy read' translations read God "desires all men to be saved" NASB/ESV. This is further evidence of the truth, for how could an omnipotent God not have what He "desires"; is God all powerful or not? Let us remember,"the powers that be are ordained of God." Romans 13.1, God raised up Pharaoh and Nebuchadnezzar, if they could have, would they have had their every desire fulfilled? Then why not the Almighty?
I do wish believers would refrain from using such verses as a proof text to support their attacks on pre-destination, election and reprobation.
Of the Jews, Paul said;
"who both killed the Lord Jesus, and their own prophets, and have persecuted us: and they please not God, and are contrary to all men." 1 Thessalonians 2.15.
Does the "all men" in this verse mean EVERY man in the world including those Jews Paul was talking about? Likewise, was EVERY person in the world" taxed in Luke 2.1? Clearly not! But, "all" those under Caesar's jurisdiction were. When I was selling second hand cars I would say all these cars are mine (all in my compound), I didn't mean every single car in the world! Let us start "rightly dividing the word of truth" 2 Timothy 2.15?
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